Wednesday, May 11, 2011

CDL: France, England, and Women's Rights in the 1790s

1.      What reasons did the people have against women’s rights in this time period?
-          The culture was that women were to be submissive to there husbands. They were to do what they were told, to stay silent and stick to the status quote.  Men were thought to be better and smarter than women so that’s why they were in charge.

2.      Why did Mary Wollstonecraft call marriage legalized prostitution?
-          Because once a woman was married to a man, she was his “property” and he could do what ever he wished with her. Often times, woman were used and abused for sex. Woman were basically slaves of man. The man owned them.

3.      Why was the idea of having rights to a formal education so important to women who supported feminist ideas? How could having a formal education give women a better sense of equality?
-          Back in the day, only men were allowed to have an education because men “were smarter.” They believed that women’s brains wouldn’t be able to handle any more information than they already get. I think this thinking was brought up from a verse in the bible that says “men treat your wives as the weaker vessel.” Maybe to the men this was there chant but if you read on it says “to be heirs together.” That was probably the woman’s fight back. An education would allow a woman to be able to stand on her own two feet without the help of a man. She could do as she pleased and tech her children too.

4. Why did most women of the 1790's prefer a moderate stance rather than an influential stance when it came to Women's Rights?
- they were use to not having a say in things and life wasn’t necessarily bad… I mean it could be worse, so why change it. What if the change brought in harsher consequences? Besides, it would be hard work. They would have to go way out of their way to actually change things